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Exact Match

A great deal, from every point of view. In the first place, the Jews were intrusted with the utterances of God.

What does this mean? Are we Jews at a disadvantage? Not at all. We have already charged Jews and Greeks all alike with being under the control of sin.

Does God belong to the Jews alone? Does he not belong to the heathen too? Of course he belongs to the heathen too;

including us whom he has called not only from among the Jews but from among the heathen?